Dividend Discount Model CalculatorGordon Growth and Two-Stage

What do these figures come to once the work is shown?

Share value from the current dividend, a high-growth stage and a terminal growth rate, with the PV of each stage.

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Your figures
Example figuresIllustrative only. Type over them with your own.
Value per share
$54
Present value of expected dividends
PV of high-growth dividends
$10
Terminal value at end of high growth
$67
Drawn to one scale
Value per share$54
PV of high-growth dividends$10
Terminal value at end of high growth$67
PV of terminal value$44
Next year dividend$2
All results
MeasureResult
Value per share$54
PV of high-growth dividends$10
Terminal value at end of high growth$67
PV of terminal value$44
Next year dividend$2
Terminal value share of total80.90%
How this was worked out
Work shownrecomputed as you type
D_t = D_0 x (1 + g1)^t for t = 1 to N
Terminal value at N = D_N x (1 + g2) / (r - g2)
Value = sum of D_t / (1 + r)^t + terminal value / (1 + r)^N
N = 0 gives Gordon growth: D_0 x (1 + g2) / (r - g2)

Illustrative arithmetic on the figures you enter. Check the result against your firm's methodology before relying on it.

The formulas

  • D_t = D_0 x (1 + g1)^t for t = 1 to N
  • Terminal value at N = D_N x (1 + g2) / (r - g2)
  • Value = sum of D_t / (1 + r)^t + terminal value / (1 + r)^N
  • N = 0 gives Gordon growth: D_0 x (1 + g2) / (r - g2)

How it works

The dividend discount model values a share as the present value of the dividends it will pay. The Gordon growth form assumes one constant growth rate forever. The two-stage form allows a period of faster growth before settling at a long-term rate.

The long-term rate must be below the required return and should not exceed long-run nominal economic growth. The terminal value usually carries most of the value, as the last row shows, so the answer is most sensitive to the gap between r and g2.

Illustrative figures only. Check the result against your firm's methodology before relying on it.

Common questions

Why next year dividend in Gordon growth?

The model values dividends from year 1 onward. D_0 was just paid and belongs to the seller.

What required return do I use?

A cost of equity, often from CAPM.

Does it work for companies with no dividend?

Not directly. Use free cash flow to equity in place of dividends.

Formulas on this page are the standard definitions.

Runs in your browser. The figures you type are not sent to CORAA or stored. Check the result against your firm's methodology before relying on it.

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